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The principal states sum of moments has to add up, does it imply there has to be a force coupled with a moment? In other words there can simply exist a moment without a force is it not? Typically we tend to associate a force with a twisting moment because things have to add up but is there any such
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A colleague of mine said that a chief examiner (in the UK) has declared the official definition of a couple to include the fact that the perpendicular distance of each force to the pivot must be the same. Is this true? If it is, can it be clarified on this page (there is mention to a couple
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They are not strictly equivalent - torque is the moment resulting from the application of a couple. A torque can result from a single force or a combination of different forces. A couple can only result from two equal and opposite forces.
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producing no change the the momentum of the centre of mass, but does that necessarily mean that the perpendicular distance between the two forces and the pivot must be the same? Plain
English would help here I think)
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statement ever made? (i.e a twist/moment has to have an associated force? I have seen this break in case of cantilevers and seen a nice article on
Varignon's theorem here:
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Something got messed up in the formula at 'Simple Couple' 'Definition' where 'd' was supposed to be defined - fix please thanks
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i.e. the exam may be using "couple" to mean "simple couple". Don't know about other textbooks. --
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http://web.mit.edu/4.441/1_lectures/1_lecture10/1_lecture10.html
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The textbook by Kane and
Levinson is not consistent with that:
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but never the reverse) (-Alok 08:29, 29 March 2011 (UTC))
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A rename is necessary. The name of the article should be
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