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up by Arrian. But I certainly wasn't trying to suggest that the correspondence was genuine, though, as I am fairly certain it was not. But it was an ancient, and, if you are correct, probably
Hellenistic, fraud, which means that the title of "King of Asia" was one that would have at least seemed plausible as a title of Alexander to contemporaries (and to Arrian, of course).
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Arrian was thought to be a fairly conscientious historian - that is to say, that he based most of what he said on his sources, who were primarily
Ptolemy and Aristobulus, who were reasonably contemporary with Alexander - one would assume, at least, that the correspondence probably wasn't simply made
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For they all say that the earth is divided into three parts, Europe, Asia, and Libya, whereas they ought to add a fourth part, the Delta of Egypt, since they do not include it either in Asia or Libya. For is it not their theory that the Nile separates Asia from Libya? As the Nile, therefore, splits
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Reader beware! In spite of 765 Google hits for "King of Asia" (the whole phrase), this term is a naive anachronism. "Asia" in the 4th century BCE did not mean Syria and Persia etc . This "crowning" and this "title" are modern fantasies. Wikipedians are notably gullible when it comes to history, and
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If the title "King of Asia" were the main title used by
Alexander and by the Seleucid Kings who followed him, then it would appear in their inscriptions. Perhaps it does: that would certainly convince me. The letter from Arrian's biography, however, is a fiction, an invention, like the speeches in
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mean the whole of what we now call Asia. Herodotus used it in this sense, for instance. It was also used more specifically to refer to western Asia Minor. But the term "Asia Minor" is an ancient one, and obviously distinguishes Lesser Asia (i.e. Anatolia, the nearest part of Asia to the Greeks)
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Beyond this, it was my understanding that "King of Asia" was the Greek interpretation of the
Babylonian "King of Lands" or "King of the World". The former was the primary title of the Persian kings, and since the Greeks knew that the Persian kings ruled neither Europe nor Libya, what the Persian
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is a quote from Arrian, who quotes what is supposedly a letter from
Alexander to Darius, where he refers to himself as King of Asia. He was apparently called "King of Lands" in Babylon, which was taken by the Greeks to mean "King of Asia." And Asia certainly
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from
Greater Asia (the whole of what we now call Asia.) For the Greeks, at least from Herodotus, there were three continents - Europe, Asia, and Libya. I really don't think this is nearly as anachronistic as you think it is.
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Alexander recovered Darius' wagon train and all his treasure. But is it a fact, as
Knowledge's Front Page asserted, that "Alexander was then crowned "King of Asia" in a magnificent ceremony in Arbela (modern-day
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My understanding is that the title "King of Asia" was the main title used by
Alexander and by the Seleucid Kings who followed him. Justin also uses the title for the Attalid kings of Pergamon.
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Thucydides. A whole fictive correspondence of
Alexander circulated in Hellenistic times, according to a good modern biography of Alexander, that by Robin Lane Fox. Herodotus (
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kings actually were was "King of Asia." But, I will admit, I have no direct evidence of this, and I'm uncertain. The title "King of Asia" is
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in two at the apex of the Delta, the Delta itself must be a separate country, not contained in either Asia or Libya.
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used by Justin's
Epitome of Pompeius Trogus as the title of the Kings of Pergamon (at least, of some of them).
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came up with the title "King of Asia" in the 2nd centry CE, that would be worth mentioning in the article.
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an attempt to delete this nonsensical entry would doubtless be voted down. Nevertheless, after the
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So apparently Herodotus did place Persia within Asia, and I am mistaken. If
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But let's see if we can find any evidence about the Seleucids.
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BTW, Appian uses "King of Asia" to refer to Seleucus I:
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And here's Memnon using it to refer to Antiochus I:
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